• LeninOnAPrayer@lemm.ee
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    13 hours ago

    Good question. Appreciate it.

    The term “Semetic” comes from the Eugenics categories that originated in the 20th century. It actually has racist roots that popularized the term in Nazi Germany. There were people that proudly proclaimed to be “anti-Semitic”.

    Semetic was a term to describe people of a “race” from the Semetic regions. These were categorized as people that spoke Hebrew, Arabic, Aramaic languages. Basically people from modern day Arab countries and Israel.

    Now, the Nazis viewed Jews as “Ungerman” even though they absolutely were German people. The Jews in Germany had lived their for centuries and spoke German and Yiddish (a variant of German enough to be considered a different language). Again, the Germans viewed Yiddish as a “Semetic” corruption of the German language.

    So when the Nazis said they were “Antisemitic” they were categorizing German Jews as “not belonging” and associating them with the “Semetic” region.

    It was basically a way of categorizing the German Jews as outsiders in order to associate them with Arabs and the “Semetic” people.

    Because of the history of Nazi Germany and the Holocaust the term “antisemitic” has evolved to basically mean “anti Jewish” today. Even though it was originally a term to “otherize” German Jews and categorize them with Arabs. It fed on the existing racism towards outsiders and categorized German Jews as such.

    So when I said “Antisemitism against Arabs” I was referencing this history. As Arabs are by definition “Semetic” people.

    The same type of “otherizing” of Arabs and Muslims in Germany is being done today. But this time the focus is not on Jews. But these are the same structures of racism and Fascism that existed in 1930s Germany. And there is no reason for Jewish people not to be categorized as “others” again as this fascist history repeats itself.